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ReviewersPH Free Practice Tests

General Exams (Nursing Physiologyb) – Page 1

#1. Tracy is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic carcinoma. Nurse Ruby should monitor the client for the systemic side effect of_____________.
A Ascites
B Polycythemia
C Nystagmus
D Leukopenia
Answer: Leukopenia
#2. Randy has undergone kidney transplant, what assessment would prompt Nurse Katrina to suspect organ rejection?
A Polyuria
B Sudden weight loss
C Shock
D Hypertension
Answer: Hypertension
#3. The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease _______________.
A Hypertension
B Hematuria
C Pain
D Weight
Answer: Pain
#4. Matilda, with hyperthyroidism is to receive Lugol’s iodine solution before a subtotal thyroidectomy is performed. The nurse is aware that this medication is given to __________.
A Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland.
B Block the formation of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.
C Maintain the function of the parathyroid glands.
D Decrease the total basal metabolic rate.
Answer: Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland.
#5. Ricardo, was diagnosed with type I diabetes. The nurse is aware that acute hypoglycemia also can develop in the client who is diagnosed with ______________.
A Type 2 diabetes
B Hyperthyroidism
C Liver disease
D Hypertension
Answer: Liver disease
#6. Norma, with recent colostomy expresses concern about the inability to control the passage of gas. Nurse Oliver should suggest that the client plan to_____________.
A Decrease fluid intake at meal times.
B Eliminate foods high in cellulose.
C Adhere to a bland diet prior to social events.
D Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.
Answer: Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.
#7. Nurse Ron begins to teach a male client how to perform colostomy irrigations. The nurse would evaluate that the instructions were understood when the client states, “I should___________".
A Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.
B Lie on my left side while instilling the irrigating solution.
C Insert the irrigating catheter deeper into the stoma if cramping occurs during the procedure.
D Instill a minimum of 1200 ml of irrigating solution to stimulate evacuation of the bowel.”
Answer: Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.
#8. Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would expect to_______________.
A Administer large amounts of normal saline via I.V.
B Increase oral intake of cheese and milk.
C Administer Kayexalate
D Restrict foods high in protein
Answer: Administer Kayexalate
#9. Mario has burn injury. After 48 hours, the physician orders for Mario 2 liters of IV fluid to be administered q12 h. The drop factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the flow to provide _____________.
A 36 gtt/min
B 18 gtt/min
C 32 gtt/min
D 28 gtt/min
Answer: 28 gtt/min
#10. Terence suffered form burn injury. Using the rule of nines, which has the largest percent of burns?
A Face and neck
B Upper trunk
C Right thigh and penis
D Right upper arm and penis
Answer: Upper trunk
#11. Herbert, a 45 year old construction engineer is brought to the hospital unconscious after falling from a 2-story building. When assessing the client, the nurse would be most concerned if the assessment revealed ____________________.
A A depressed fontanel
B Bleeding from ears
C Reactive pupils
D An elevated temperature
Answer: Bleeding from ears
#12. Nurse Sherry is teaching male client regarding his permanent artificial pacemaker. Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledge deficit about the artificial cardiac pacemaker?
A May be allowed to use electrical appliances
B take the pulse rate once a day, in the morning upon awakening
C Have regular follow up care
D May engage in contact sports
Answer: May engage in contact sports
#13. The nurse is ware that the most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a male client with COPD is _________________.
A Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter.
B Oxygen is administered best using a non-rebreathing mask
C Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.
D Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the medulla that makes the client breath.
Answer: Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.
#14. Tonny has undergoes a left thoracotomy and a partial pneumonectomy. Chest tubes are inserted, and one-bottle water-seal drainage is instituted in the operating room. In the postanesthesia care unit Tonny is placed in Fowler’s position on either his right side or on his back. The nurse is aware that this position _______________.
A Increase venous return
B Reduce incisional pain.
C Equalize pressure in the pleural space.
D Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.
Answer: Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.
#15. Kristine is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. When teaching Kristine what to expect afterward, the nurse’s highest priority of information would be ________________.
A Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially
B Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will be done q2h
C Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours
D Warm saline gargles will be done q 2h
Answer: Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours
#16. Nurse Tristan is caring for a male client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat _________.
A hypernatremia.
B hypercalcemia.
C hypokalemia.
D hyperkalemia.
Answer: hyperkalemia.
#17. Ms. X has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?
A The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex.
B The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
C This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
D The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
Answer: This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
#18. Maritess was recently diagnosed with a genitourinary problem and is being examined in the emergency department. When palpating the her kidneys, the nurse should keep which anatomical fact in mind?
A The kidneys lie between the 10th and 12th thoracic vertebrae.
B The average kidney is approximately 5 cm (2?) long and 2 to 3 cm (¾” to 1-1/8?) wide.
C The kidneys are situated just above the adrenal glands.
D The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one.
Answer: The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one.
#19. Jestoni with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. The nurse is aware that the diagnostic test are consistent with CRF if the result is____________.
A Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.
B Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions.
C Uric acid analysis 3.5 mg/dl and phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) excretion 75%.
D Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/ dl
Answer: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/ dl
#20. Katrina has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, Katrina asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
A Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin.
B Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ.
C Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.
D Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found.
Answer: Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.
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